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I read the paper† and I have to admit the statistics ("multilevel generalized estimating equations with a negative binomial distribution and a robust estimator covariance") is over my head, but to me it kind of sounds like they couldn't find any results with a simple model, so opted for something more complex. Also some of these results are kind of fishy.

Across all countries, FWHR only had a marginally significant association with fouls committed (B=.291, 95 % CI: [−.040, .622], p=.085). When these effects were examined separately for defenders, midfielders, and forwards, the relationship between FWHR and fouls were in a negative, nonsignificant direction in defenders (B=−.361, 95 % CI: [−.841, .119], p=.140), a positive direction for midfielders (B=.449, 95 % CI: [.015, .884], p=.043), and a more robust positive direction for forwards (B=.935, 95 % CI: [.401, 1.469], p=.001).

So if you are a defender FWHR and fouls are negatively correlated, but if you are a forward FWHR and fouls are positively correlated? That just seems confusing, and doesn't at all support the conclusion that "high FWHR is associated with more aggressive behavior."

http://www.researchgate.net/publication/264545489_An_Examina...



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